How can I make 1 by length x array of random numbers from -pi to pi ??
1 view (last 30 days)
Show older comments
How can I make 1 by length x array of random numbers from -pi to pi ??
0 Comments
Accepted Answer
Jan
on 1 Nov 2021
See:
help rand
% Generate values from the uniform distribution on the interval (a, b):
r = a + (b - a) .* rand(x, 1);
Now set a=-pi and b=p:
r = -pi + 2*pi * rand(x, 1);
Actually we do not solve homework questions in the forum. But here I hope you see, how useful the hint is to take a look into the documentation. For questions concerning a command, start with help() and doc(). If this does not help directly, look at the bottom in the "See also" line, which contains other similar commands.
0 Comments
More Answers (1)
M.MUSBA Elhadid
on 31 Oct 2021
Edited: M.MUSBA Elhadid
on 31 Oct 2021
x = ones(1,100); a = [rand(1,length(x))-0.5]+linspace(-pi+0.5,pi-0.5,length(x));
2 Comments
John D'Errico
on 1 Nov 2021
Edited: John D'Errico
on 1 Nov 2021
I'm sorry, but do you realize this solution does not generate uniformly distributed random numbers? Worse, it requires far more effort than the true solution.
Does it work? Is it even remotely close? Perhaps they only way to prove it is to do a large simulation.
a = zeros(1000,100);
for i = 1:1000
x = ones(1,100); a(i,:) = [rand(1,length(x))-0.5]+linspace(-pi+0.5,pi-0.5,length(x));
end
hist(a(:),1000)
Does that look even remotely uniformly distributed? See the answer by Jan for a far better solution. And even worse, you are trying to do what is surely someone's homework assignment. We do not do homework assignments for students on this site.
See Also
Products
Community Treasure Hunt
Find the treasures in MATLAB Central and discover how the community can help you!
Start Hunting!